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Q2 June 2009, could you help me?

Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA AFM Advanced Financial Management Forums › Q2 June 2009, could you help me?

  • This topic has 8 replies, 5 voices, and was last updated 14 years ago by Anonymous.
Viewing 9 posts - 1 through 9 (of 9 total)
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  • June 3, 2010 at 1:55 pm #44380
    oliviachen
    Member
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 1
    • ☆

    In the answer,

    1) hwo do you know BBS stores business can be divided into retail and property?
    2) where can you find that the Beta of property portion is 0.625?
    3) why the Vp is 1,231 under both options?
    4) Does Vd only refer to the debt not the liabilities?

    Thanks a lot!

    June 3, 2010 at 4:42 pm #61991
    zigot14
    Member
    • Topics: 6
    • Replies: 22
    • ☆

    I’m recalling this off my memory so it may not be that accurate.

    1. It should be mentioned somewhere in the question. That’s why P4 is so darn difficult, you need to be real sharp to catch things like these.

    2. take the industry’s. You’re given the gearing and the industry’s Beta asset.

    3. Sorry really cant recall this.

    4. Yes it’s debt. Things like provisions are not included.

    June 3, 2010 at 6:08 pm #61992
    anjan
    Participant
    • Topics: 6
    • Replies: 36
    • ☆

    The BBS Stores equity beta is currently 1·824. A representative portfolio of commercial property companies has an equity beta of 1·25 and an average market gearing (adjusted for tax) of 50%.
    This information in question gives us clue that BBS stores has two different type of assets have two different equity beta..one for retail (stores is assumed to do retail business) and commercial property generating different return from its main business of retail..
    if you degear proxy equity beta of commercial property of 1.25 using average tax adjusted market gearing ,you would get asset beta equal to 0.625..remember the formula is asset beta = equity beta*(1-w’d) where w’d is tax adjusted market gearing which is given in question so 1.25(1-0.5)=0.625.
    i didn’t understand your third question..
    Vd means debt which is long and medium term financial liabilities…

    June 6, 2010 at 11:16 am #61993
    oliviachen
    Member
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 1
    • ☆

    Thanks guys!

    But in the answer, when caculating asset beta, 1231 is used to refer the value of property. I do not know why?

    June 6, 2010 at 7:48 pm #61994
    zigot14
    Member
    • Topics: 6
    • Replies: 22
    • ☆

    Just did the question today, can now answer your 3rd question.

    It’s used to calculate the new combined asset beta because 1,231 is the remaining value of the property section of the business.

    Before the reconstruction, your property portfolio value is
    = value of landbuilding + value of assets under construction
    = 2297+165
    =2462

    Since 50% of each category was disposed during the restructuring, the balance of the portfolio is also 50%, i.e. 1231.

    Vr is hence the residual.

    November 21, 2010 at 2:11 pm #61995
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 9
    • ☆

    sorry may i ask why is fixture, fitting and equipment of $1,588m ignored from the property portfolio reconstruction calculation above?

    November 24, 2010 at 1:11 pm #61996
    zigot14
    Member
    • Topics: 6
    • Replies: 22
    • ☆

    sorry jetta i took this paper last sitting. Cannot recall.

    Good luck though.

    November 25, 2010 at 3:01 pm #61997
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 9
    • ☆

    that’s alright zigot. Is there anyone else who can help me with this? Thanks.

    November 25, 2010 at 6:39 pm #61998
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 9
    • ☆

    The questions says “50% of property portfolio(land and buildings) and 50% of assets under construction will be sold”. That’s why fixtures and equipment are excluded from the calculation.

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