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Q19 Bubble (BPP SBR P&R Kit Sep 2019 – Jun 2020)

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA SBR Exams › Q19 Bubble (BPP SBR P&R Kit Sep 2019 – Jun 2020)

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 4 years ago by Stephen Widberg.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • May 22, 2020 at 6:15 pm #571607
    mmkhan7
    Participant
    • Topics: 12
    • Replies: 2
    • ☆

    Hi,

    First, I’d like to thank you for the incredible service you provide. I discovered and joined OpenTuition a couple of months ago and have been immensely benefitting from it. So, I’d like to thank you once again for this service.

    Regarding the question, I would kindly like your help with (a)(i) (in the P&R Kit)

    This question also appeared in Sep/Dec 2015 in P2
    https://www.accaglobal.com/content/dam/ACCA_Global/Students/prof/p2/P2%20INT/d15_hybrid_p2int_q.pdf

    In the answer (Page 144 – BPP SBR P&R Kit Sep 2019 – Jun 2020),

    On 1 Feb 20X5, Tyslar recorded the loan in its financial statements at 90m dinars ($10m × 9)

    On 1 Jul 20X5, Tyslar repaid 50m dinars ($5m × 10)

    And therefore deducted 50m dinars from 90m dinars leaving the balance of the loan in their financial statements at 40m dinars.

    Then, on 31 Oct 20X5, the remaining balance of $5m was translated at 9.5 dinars bringing the balance in Tyslar’s financial statements to 47.5m dinars and giving an exchange loss of 7.5m dinars

    However, I want to ask that before Tyslar repaid 50m dinars, shouldn’t we retranslate the full loan amount of $10m at the rate of 10 dinars:$1 at 1 Jul 20X5 and then record the exchange loss in P/L as follows:

    $10m × 10 = 100m dinars

    100m dinars – 90m dinars = 10m dinars (Exchange loss)

    Journal entry:
    Dr. P/L – 10m dinars
    Dr. Non-current Liabilities – 40m dinars
    Cr. Cash – 50m dinars

    Therefore, we’ll have to deduct 40m dinars from 100m dinars bringing the balance of the loan in Tyslar’s financial statements to 60m dinars rather than the previous 40m dinars.

    On 31 Oct 20X5, the remaining balance will be the same 47.5m dinars ($5m × 9.5) but the exchange loss will be 12.5m dinars (60m dinars – 47.5m dinars) rather than the previous 7.5m dinars

    I’m asking this because the answer to Activity 1 (Chapter 16 – BPP SBR Course Notes Sep 2019 – Jun 2020) in the appendix (Page 575) shows the same way of calculation as I have suggested above.

    Thanks

    Kind regards

    May 23, 2020 at 2:41 pm #571662
    Stephen Widberg
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 16
    • Replies: 3396
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    There are 2 exchange differences:
    On the amount repaid (from start of year to repayment date)
    (5×9) – (5×10) = 5
    On the amount not yet repaid (from start of year to end of year)
    (5×9) – (5×9.5) = 2,5
    Total loss = 7.5

    Best way to do it is use BPP working – that’s what I’ve always taught

    You only remeasure at monetary assets and liabilities at the reporting date- I can’t work out where your numbers have gone wrong – but don’t do it again!

    May 23, 2020 at 3:14 pm #571664
    mmkhan7
    Participant
    • Topics: 12
    • Replies: 2
    • ☆

    So, they calculated the exchange loss separately on the $5m that was repaid and the $5m yet to be repaid and aggregated it (5 + 2.5 = 7.5) at the year-end (31 Oct 20X5)?

    May 24, 2020 at 11:10 am #571729
    Stephen Widberg
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 16
    • Replies: 3396
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You don’t need to separate the 2 bits out – they’ve done the XD as a single balancing figure
    I just broke it apart to show that their answer was right.

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