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Just a quick one looking at the solutions why was NCI of heeny 44% used. I can see why the 30% was used.
Can you please break this out for me a help me with the understanding?
Many thanks for your help
Isn’t it because the examiner gave you the value of the “nci’s 44%” holding?
Its because we will calculate the effective interest of parent in the sub subsidiary 56% (70% of 80%) parent hence we hav NCI int of 44%(30% of 80%+20%) in the sub subsidiary.
Thanks for that! But how did you do the calculation for the 56 and the 44%
Thank you
Sorry just worked it out cheers for that!!!
Any useful tips for the exams lads?? Do you think cash flows will come up or income statement or what might be the topic to come up in q4 just want to know what ye think?
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