• Skip to primary navigation
  • Skip to main content
  • Skip to primary sidebar
Free ACCA & CIMA online courses from OpenTuition

Free ACCA & CIMA online courses from OpenTuition

Free Notes, Lectures, Tests and Forums for ACCA and CIMA exams

  • ACCA
  • CIMA
  • FIA
  • OBU
  • Books
  • Forums
  • Ask AI
  • Search
  • Register
  • Login
  • ACCA Forums
  • Ask ACCA Tutor
  • CIMA Forums
  • Ask CIMA Tutor
  • FIA
  • OBU
  • Buy/Sell Books
  • All Forums
  • Latest Topics

June 2025 ACCA Exam Results

Comments & Instant poll >>

20% off ACCA & CIMA Books

OpenTuition recommends the new interactive BPP books for June 2025 exams.
Get your discount code >>

Q Warden (12/11)

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › Q Warden (12/11)

  • This topic has 5 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 12 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • May 27, 2013 at 7:30 pm #127381
    hasanali95
    Member
    • Topics: 239
    • Replies: 248
    • ☆☆☆

    In part c ii) for finding the PV of selling price we take the tax liability and only multiply it with a yr1 discount factor and not 5 yrs annuity,why?

    May 28, 2013 at 8:37 am #127422
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54702
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I am away from home at the moment and cannot access the question. I will reply tomorrow when I am home.

    May 28, 2013 at 9:29 am #127428
    hasanali95
    Member
    • Topics: 239
    • Replies: 248
    • ☆☆☆

    Thanks sir and do reply 😀

    May 28, 2013 at 1:51 pm #127472
    seanah
    Member
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 11
    • ☆

    Hi,
    It’s because tax is paid in arrears:

    First you calculate sales using 5 yrs annuity: 100,000 × $16 × 3.696 = $5,913,600
    than you calculate tax based on ALREADY discounted sales: $5,913,600 × 30% = $1,774,080
    But this amount of tax must be additionaly multiplied by 1/(1+11%) = 0.901 (“moved back by one more year”) to take into account payment of tax in arrears. 1,774,080 x 0,901 = 1598,4

    Alternative solution:

    Sales: 100,000 × $16 × 3.696 = $5,913,600
    Tax 1600 *30% = 480 – paid from year 2-6 so x 3,330 (4,231 annuity for 6 years – 0,901 – discount factor for 1 year) = 1598,4

    May 28, 2013 at 2:45 pm #127495
    hasanali95
    Member
    • Topics: 239
    • Replies: 248
    • ☆☆☆

    Thanks alot.i appreciate it 🙂

    May 28, 2013 at 3:30 pm #127510
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54702
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Thanks for sorting it Seanah

  • Author
    Posts
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
  • You must be logged in to reply to this topic.
Log In

Primary Sidebar

Donate
If you have benefited from our materials, please donate

ACCA News:

ACCA My Exam Performance for non-variant

Applied Skills exams is available NOW

ACCA Options:  “Read the Mind of the Marker” articles

Subscribe to ACCA’s Student Accountant Direct

ACCA CBE 2025 Exams

How was your exam, and what was the exam result?

BT CBE exam was.. | MA CBE exam was..
FA CBE exam was.. | LW CBE exam was..

Donate

If you have benefited from OpenTuition please donate.

PQ Magazine

Latest Comments

  • verweijlisa on Financial performance – Example 2 – ACCA Financial Reporting (FR)
  • John Moffat on Linear Programming – Spare capacity and Shadow prices – ACCA Performance Management (PM)
  • John Moffat on The Statement of Financial Position and Income Statement (part d)
  • Salexy on Linear Programming – Spare capacity and Shadow prices – ACCA Performance Management (PM)
  • omerbasheer on The Statement of Financial Position and Income Statement (part d)

Copyright © 2025 · Support · Contact · Advertising · OpenLicense · About · Sitemap · Comments · Log in