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Q Warden (12/11)

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › Q Warden (12/11)

  • This topic has 5 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 12 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • May 27, 2013 at 7:30 pm #127381
    hasanali95
    Member
    • Topics: 239
    • Replies: 248
    • ☆☆☆

    In part c ii) for finding the PV of selling price we take the tax liability and only multiply it with a yr1 discount factor and not 5 yrs annuity,why?

    May 28, 2013 at 8:37 am #127422
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54830
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I am away from home at the moment and cannot access the question. I will reply tomorrow when I am home.

    May 28, 2013 at 9:29 am #127428
    hasanali95
    Member
    • Topics: 239
    • Replies: 248
    • ☆☆☆

    Thanks sir and do reply 😀

    May 28, 2013 at 1:51 pm #127472
    seanah
    Member
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 11
    • ☆

    Hi,
    It’s because tax is paid in arrears:

    First you calculate sales using 5 yrs annuity: 100,000 × $16 × 3.696 = $5,913,600
    than you calculate tax based on ALREADY discounted sales: $5,913,600 × 30% = $1,774,080
    But this amount of tax must be additionaly multiplied by 1/(1+11%) = 0.901 (“moved back by one more year”) to take into account payment of tax in arrears. 1,774,080 x 0,901 = 1598,4

    Alternative solution:

    Sales: 100,000 × $16 × 3.696 = $5,913,600
    Tax 1600 *30% = 480 – paid from year 2-6 so x 3,330 (4,231 annuity for 6 years – 0,901 – discount factor for 1 year) = 1598,4

    May 28, 2013 at 2:45 pm #127495
    hasanali95
    Member
    • Topics: 239
    • Replies: 248
    • ☆☆☆

    Thanks alot.i appreciate it 🙂

    May 28, 2013 at 3:30 pm #127510
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54830
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Thanks for sorting it Seanah

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