Hi Sir, I have a question about Pa when we are calculating Put option value using BSOP Model.
In my notes from BPP, there is an example where even the cost of a project is being taken into account as Pa. I don't understand that. I am writing down the example for you:
Company X is considering an investment in a joint venture to develop high quality office blocks
to be let out to blue chip corporate clients. This project has a thirty year life, and is expected to cost Company X £90m and to generate and NPV of £10m. The project manager has argued that this understates the true value of the project because the NPV of £10m ignores the option sell Company X's share in the project back to its partner for £40m at any time during the first 10 years of the project. The standard deviation is 45%p.a., and the risk free rate is 5%p.a.
Evaluate the value of option to withdraw.
Here the cost of £90m has been added into £10m to get the pv of cash inflows. I don't get how £90m is an inflow.
Thanks.
Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM
Put Option t withdraw and BSOP model
The 90M is not an inflow.
However, if the NPV is 10M then this is the PV of the inflows less the initial outflow.
So the PV of the inflows must be 100M (so that the NPV is 100 - 90 = 10).
I hope that this is OK :-)
i am not sure, stand to be corrected.....is this all that question referred to?
i followed through for the 100 total pv for cash flows, then what?
That is all that Kanza asked.
You then use the Black Scholes formula in the usual way.
Yes Sir. Thank you. I got that now. :)
You are welcome :-)
John, so in this case, the Pa is 100M, is it right?
Tks
Correct :-)
Sign into reply to this topic.
