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Purp

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › Purp

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by MikeLittle.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • October 21, 2014 at 10:35 am #205225
    akaysia
    Participant
    • Topics: 12
    • Replies: 12
    • ☆

    Hi

    If the P sells goods to the sub for $40000 and the goods cost P $30000. At the end of yr the sub had not sold $5000 of the goods – what is the unrealised profit for the group y/e?

    Would I do the below:

    SP. 40000
    Cost 30000
    Profit 10000

    Not sure what to do next?

    October 21, 2014 at 2:44 pm #205244
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23327
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The $5,000 unsold – is that $5,000 of the original $40,000? I presume that it is

    Ok, the profit within the transaction is 1/4 of the sale price / transfer price.

    So profit within the transaction is 1/4 x $40,000

    And there is still $5,000 in inventory valued at sale price

    So: 5,000/40,000 x 10,000 (ie closing inventory as a fraction of transaction sale price multiplied by profit on sale) is $1,250 pup accounted for by deducting from P’s retained earnings

    An alternative way of thinking about it is to say that, of the $40,000 sale, one eighth is still in inventory and one eighth of the overall profit on the transaction is 1/8 x $10,000 = $1,250

    OK?

    October 21, 2014 at 7:15 pm #205311
    akaysia
    Participant
    • Topics: 12
    • Replies: 12
    • ☆

    Ok thanks yeah I understand that – you take the remaining inventory divide by how much you sold for then x by the profit you would have made

    October 22, 2014 at 7:05 am #205347
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23327
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    That’s it, yes

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    Posts
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