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PURP

Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA FR Financial Reporting Forums › PURP

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 14 years ago by MikeLittle.
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  • November 14, 2010 at 9:19 pm #45976
    anjali
    Member
    • Topics: 5
    • Replies: 4
    • ☆

    Hi everyone…

    I’m having problems with Q46 in the Kaplan exams kit… Can someone please help me with the PURP calculations… i didnt understand why it multiplied by 30%????

    Thanks

    November 17, 2010 at 4:15 pm #70570
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23311
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Hi – I don’t have a Kaplan kit but it looks like the pup has been calculated by multiplying the intra-group inventory by 30% because it was transferred by the selling company who always achieves a 30% gross profit ( or gross margin, or margin )

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