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- June 1, 2014 at 9:18 pm #172479
CAPM is used to calculate the project specific cost of equity but I understand that if debt finance forms apart of the financing for an investment, a project specific WACC should be calculated. In terms of how they are calculated, what is the difference between a project specific CAPM and a project specific WACC?
June 2, 2014 at 12:20 pm #172606There is no such thing as a project specific CAPM.
The project specific cost of equity is determined from the equity beta.
The project specific WACC is calculated in the normal way – weighting the project specific cost of equity, and the cost of debt, by the gearing ratio.
June 3, 2014 at 8:42 pm #173449ok. Thank you. I must have misunderst. kindly explain ACCA answer to the 2008 Dec question #3c
Question: Explain how the capital asset pricing model can be used to calculate a project-specific discount rate and discuss the limitations of using the capital asset pricing model in investment appraisal.
Answer: The CAPM can be used to calculate a project-specific discount rate in circumstances where the business risk of an investment project is different from the business risk of the existing operations of the investing company. In these circumstances, it is not appropriate to use the WACC as the discount rate in investment appraisal. The first step in using the CAPM to calculate a project-specific discount rate is to find a proxy company that undertake operations whose business risk is similar to that of the proposed investment. The equity beta of the proxy company will represent both the business risk and the financial risk of the proxy company. The effect of the financial risk of the proxy company must be removed to give a proxy beta representing the business risk alone of the proposed investment. This beta is called an asset beta and the calculation that removes the effect of the financial risk of the proxy company is called ‘ungearing’. The asset beta representing the business risk of a proposed investment must be adjusted to reflect the financial risk of the investing company, a process called ‘regearing’. This process produces an equity beta that can be placed in the CAPM in order to calculate a required rate of return (a cost of equity). This can be used as the project-specific discount rate for the proposed investment if it is financed entirely by equity. If debt finance forms part of the financing for the proposed investment, a project-specific weighted average cost of capital can be calculated. The limitations of using the CAPM in investment appraisal: difficulties associated with finding the information needed (this applies to the equity risk premium, the risk-free rate of return, locating appropriate proxy companies with business operations similar to the proposed investment project); Most companies have a range of business operations they undertake and so their equity betas do not reflect only the desired level and type of business risk; the assumptions underlying the CAPM can be criticised as unrealistic in the real world. For example, the CAPM assumes a perfect capital market, when in reality capital markets are only semi-strong form efficient at best. The CAPM assumes that all investors have diversified portfolios, so that rewards are only required for accepting systematic risk, when in fact this may not be true. There is no practical replacement for the CAPM at the present time, however.June 5, 2014 at 10:08 am #174134But that answer says exactly the same as what I wrote 🙂
First we find the beta of the project.
We do this by finding the asset beta of a similar company (the asset beta because we are looking for the riskiness of the project without any gearing).Then we calculate the equity beta for the project – using the gearing of the project to gear up the asset beta. (If there is no gearing in the project then the equity beta will be the same as the asset beta).
Then we calculate a cost of equity for the project using the equity beta – this is the project specific cost of equity.
Then we calculate the WACC for the project in the normal way (weighting the cost of equity and the cost of debt) – this is the project specific WACC. (Obviously if there is no gearing the WACC will be the same as the cost of equity).
It might help you to watch my free lectures on this.
June 5, 2014 at 3:07 pm #174223ok thanks.
June 5, 2014 at 6:34 pm #174375You are welcome 🙂
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