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project appraisal

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › project appraisal

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 13 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
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  • August 24, 2012 at 3:17 pm #54229
    Vipin
    Member
    • Topics: 151
    • Replies: 365
    • ☆☆☆☆

    kaplan text , ch 16, tyu 5.
    they find IRR and NPV. the steps they use i didnt understand.
    IRR=(1250-1000)/1000=25%
    above step we usually do to find the percentage of increase.
    NPV=-1000+1250/1.204

    August 24, 2012 at 6:18 pm #104641
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54761
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Because the project only lasts one year, we can calculate the IRR precisely.

    If the interest rate was r, then the present value of 1250 in 1 year is 1250 / (1+r).
    For IRR, this must be equal to the initial cost of 1000.

    So…..1250 / (1+r) = 1000

    If you re-arrange you get r = 0.25, or 25%.

    I don’t know what you are meaning in the last line of your question.

    August 25, 2012 at 5:46 am #104642
    Vipin
    Member
    • Topics: 151
    • Replies: 365
    • ☆☆☆☆

    they have calculated NPV=-1000+1250/1.204, i didnt understand that.

    August 25, 2012 at 7:09 am #104643
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54761
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    SInce the cost of capital is 20.4% (from part (a)), the alternative is simply to calculate the NPV of the project discounting at 20.4%.

    The discount factor for one year at 20.4% is 1/1.204.
    So the present value of 1250 in 1 year is 1250/1.204.
    The initial investment is 1000
    So the NPV is 1250/1.204 – 1000

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