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- October 25, 2018 at 4:51 pm #479794
Source: Kaplan Exam Kit
Opening WIP, 1 April 400 units 60% complete
Closing WIP, 30 April 600 units 20% complete
Unit started 1000
Unit finished 800The degree of completion quoted relates to labour and OHs cost. Three-quaters of the material are added at the start of the process and the remaining quater added when the process is 50% complete. The company uses the FIFO method of cost allocation
What are the equivalent units of production for material in the period?
A 1250
B 1000
C 850
D 680The Answer is C but I don’t understand how..???
October 26, 2018 at 10:38 am #479851The opening WIP is 60% complete and therefore has all the materials because it is more than 50% complete – so no extra materials in this period.
They finished 800 units, but 400 of them were already in the opening WIP. So only the remaining 400 were done from start to finish – they had all the materials in them.
The closing WIP is 20% complete and therefore only had 3/4 of the materials in them because less than 50% complete. So the equivalent units are 3/4 x 600 = 450.
Therefore the total equivalent unit are 0 + 400 + 450 = 850
October 26, 2018 at 5:07 pm #479892If input is 20000 and notmal loss is 10%
and actual loss is 25% of output.
What is Abnormal Loss and Actual Output?October 27, 2018 at 11:25 am #479928Please don’t simply set test questions and expect an answer – you must have n answer i the same book in which you found the question. Ask about whatever it is in the answer that you are not clear about and then I will help you.
Please watch my free lectures on this.
October 27, 2018 at 1:23 pm #479946I’ve watched all your free lecture on this chapter..
The Abnormal Loss is 2000
The Actual Output is 16000But they didn’t provide any solution..
October 27, 2018 at 4:06 pm #479954If the actual loss is 25% of output, then for every 100 output the loss must have been 25 and so the input must have been 125.
Therefore the actual output is 100/125 x 20,000 = 16,000, and the actual loss is 4,000.
The normal loss is 10% x 20,000 = 2,000.
Therefore the abnormal loss = 4,000 – 2,000 = 2,000.
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