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Process Costing

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA MA – FIA FMA › Process Costing

  • This topic has 5 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 6 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • October 25, 2018 at 4:51 pm #479794
    abdchohan
    Participant
    • Topics: 8
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    Source: Kaplan Exam Kit

    Opening WIP, 1 April 400 units 60% complete
    Closing WIP, 30 April 600 units 20% complete
    Unit started 1000
    Unit finished 800

    The degree of completion quoted relates to labour and OHs cost. Three-quaters of the material are added at the start of the process and the remaining quater added when the process is 50% complete. The company uses the FIFO method of cost allocation

    What are the equivalent units of production for material in the period?

    A 1250
    B 1000
    C 850
    D 680

    The Answer is C but I don’t understand how..???

    October 26, 2018 at 10:38 am #479851
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54696
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The opening WIP is 60% complete and therefore has all the materials because it is more than 50% complete – so no extra materials in this period.

    They finished 800 units, but 400 of them were already in the opening WIP. So only the remaining 400 were done from start to finish – they had all the materials in them.

    The closing WIP is 20% complete and therefore only had 3/4 of the materials in them because less than 50% complete. So the equivalent units are 3/4 x 600 = 450.

    Therefore the total equivalent unit are 0 + 400 + 450 = 850

    October 26, 2018 at 5:07 pm #479892
    abdchohan
    Participant
    • Topics: 8
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    If input is 20000 and notmal loss is 10%
    and actual loss is 25% of output.
    What is Abnormal Loss and Actual Output?

    October 27, 2018 at 11:25 am #479928
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54696
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Please don’t simply set test questions and expect an answer – you must have n answer i the same book in which you found the question. Ask about whatever it is in the answer that you are not clear about and then I will help you.

    Please watch my free lectures on this.

    October 27, 2018 at 1:23 pm #479946
    abdchohan
    Participant
    • Topics: 8
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    I’ve watched all your free lecture on this chapter..

    The Abnormal Loss is 2000
    The Actual Output is 16000

    But they didn’t provide any solution..

    October 27, 2018 at 4:06 pm #479954
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54696
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    If the actual loss is 25% of output, then for every 100 output the loss must have been 25 and so the input must have been 125.

    Therefore the actual output is 100/125 x 20,000 = 16,000, and the actual loss is 4,000.

    The normal loss is 10% x 20,000 = 2,000.

    Therefore the abnormal loss = 4,000 – 2,000 = 2,000.

  • Author
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