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Process Costing

ACAbdullah Chohan7y ago
Source: Kaplan Exam Kit Opening WIP, 1 April 400 units 60% complete Closing WIP, 30 April 600 units 20% complete Unit started 1000 Unit finished 800 The degree of completion quoted relates to labour and OHs cost. Three-quaters of the material are added at the start of the process and the remaining quater added when the process is 50% complete. The company uses the FIFO method of cost allocation What are the equivalent units of production for material in the period? A 1250 B 1000 C 850 D 680 The Answer is C but I don't understand how..???
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor7y ago#1
The opening WIP is 60% complete and therefore has all the materials because it is more than 50% complete - so no extra materials in this period. They finished 800 units, but 400 of them were already in the opening WIP. So only the remaining 400 were done from start to finish - they had all the materials in them. The closing WIP is 20% complete and therefore only had 3/4 of the materials in them because less than 50% complete. So the equivalent units are 3/4 x 600 = 450. Therefore the total equivalent unit are 0 + 400 + 450 = 850
ACAbdullah Chohan7y ago#2
If input is 20000 and notmal loss is 10% and actual loss is 25% of output. What is Abnormal Loss and Actual Output?
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor7y ago#3
Please don't simply set test questions and expect an answer - you must have n answer i the same book in which you found the question. Ask about whatever it is in the answer that you are not clear about and then I will help you. Please watch my free lectures on this.
ACAbdullah Chohan7y ago#4
I've watched all your free lecture on this chapter.. The Abnormal Loss is 2000 The Actual Output is 16000 But they didn't provide any solution..
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor7y ago#5
If the actual loss is 25% of output, then for every 100 output the loss must have been 25 and so the input must have been 125. Therefore the actual output is 100/125 x 20,000 = 16,000, and the actual loss is 4,000. The normal loss is 10% x 20,000 = 2,000. Therefore the abnormal loss = 4,000 - 2,000 = 2,000.
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