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Process costing

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA MA – FIA FMA › Process costing

  • This topic has 2 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 2 years ago by Sukuna.
Viewing 3 posts - 1 through 3 (of 3 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • August 31, 2022 at 10:45 am #664737
    Sukuna
    Participant
    • Topics: 25
    • Replies: 37
    • ☆☆

    A company produces a single product from one of its manufacturing processes. The following information of process inputs, outputs and work in process relates to the most recently completed period.

    Kg
    Opening work in process 21,700
    Materials input 105,600
    Output completed 87,100
    Closing work in process 28,200

    The closing work in process is complete as to materials and 50% complete as to conversion costs.

    The opening work in process included raw material costs of $56,420 and conversion costs of $30,405. Costs incurred during the period were as follows.

    Materials input $291,572
    Conversion costs $226,195

    Normal loss is 10 per cent of input. All losses are completely processed and have a scrap value of $2 per kg.

    it appears that the abnormal loss here is 1440. But my calculation was different in this case don’t get it why and how they get that figure.

    my working:

    105,600*10%= 10,560=Normal loss

    So 105,600-10,560=95,040= Expected output

    87,100= Actual output

    So, in this case Expected output-actual output= abnormal loss = 95,040-87,100= 7,940

    can you explain why abnormal loss is in this case 1,440 and not 7,940? What am I missing here?

    thanks in advance

    August 31, 2022 at 3:56 pm #664758
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I don’t know where you found this question but strictly it should not be asked in the exam because the examiner has said that he will not ask WIP and losses in the same question.

    However, the input was 105,600 and therefore there is a normal loss of 10% x 105,600 = 10,560.

    The actual loss was 21,700 + 105,600 – 87,100 – 28,200 = 12,000.

    Therefore the abnormal loss is 12,000 – 10,560 = 1,440.

    September 1, 2022 at 4:41 pm #664868
    Sukuna
    Participant
    • Topics: 25
    • Replies: 37
    • ☆☆

    thanks <3

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