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Present value

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › Present value

  • This topic has 5 replies, 4 voices, and was last updated 15 years ago by AvatarMikeLittle.
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • June 12, 2010 at 11:50 am #44629
    Avataraccastudent110
    Member
    • Topics: 6
    • Replies: 36
    • ☆

    This is part of a consolidation qstn where the hample is the parent and sopel is the subsidiary:
    -included in Sopel’s property at the date of acquisition was a leasehold property recorded at its depreciated historical cost of $400,000.on 1.4.08 the leasehold was sublet for its remaining life of four years at an annual rental of $80,000 payable in advance on 1st april each yr.the directors of hample are of the opinion that the fair value of this leasehold is best reflected by the present value of its future cash flows . an appropriate cost of capital for the group is 10% pa.
    the present value of a $1 annuity received at the end of each year where interest rates are 10% can be taken as :

    3 yr annuity : $2.5
    4 yr annuity : $3.5

    Answer:
    80+(80*2.5)=280
    book value=400
    reduction=120.

    depn is based on 280/4=70
    depn in sopels bks =100
    reduction: 100-70=30

    Can you explain this qstn and especially why 80+(80*2.5) has been done?
    Thank you.

    June 13, 2010 at 1:21 pm #63980
    AvatarMikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23368
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I think you’ll find that 80*2.5 does not equal 280! It’s actually ( 80 + (80*2.5))

    Is that clearer?

    June 13, 2010 at 1:38 pm #63981
    Avatarrey270
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 9
    • ☆

    You also can calculate as 80*3.5 straight away. And no need to add 80 as it already included.

    June 13, 2010 at 3:19 pm #63982
    Avataraccastudent110
    Member
    • Topics: 6
    • Replies: 36
    • ☆

    @accastudent110 said:

    Can you explain this qstn and especially why 80+(80*2.5) has been done?
    Thank you.

    @werty said:
    I think you’ll find that 80*2.5 does not equal 280! It’s actually ( 80 + (80*2.5))

    Is that clearer?

    but thats what im asking, why 80+(80*2.5)?

    @rey270, thanks i can see that also works 🙂

    December 8, 2010 at 1:01 pm #63983
    AvatarAnonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 1
    • ☆

    I have a problem with the Hample question which someone may be able to advise on.

    In consolidating Retained earnings for Sopel I normally use (90%)(Update – FV ret Earnings)

    The Update is 1800, but the FV Ret Earnings is 2200 less 120 less 180, giving 1900. But the question gives 2200?

    In all the other questions you take the Ret Earnings at Acq plus the FV Adjustments and use this figure when working out the Consolidated Ret E.

    Thanks,

    Tony

    December 8, 2010 at 1:34 pm #63984
    AvatarMikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23368
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I ALWAYS start with ret ears per the question and then make the adjustments for fair values as hey would be “today”. From that figure, I deduct the fv of the assets at date of acquisition to arrive at post-acq profits. this is a long way round, but I find it works and I’m easier with the “logic”.

    BPP take a short cut (perfectly acceptable – it’s just that I personally don’t like it!) – they adjust “today’s” ret ears by the MOVEMENT in the fair valued assets.

    I don’t see where your “Update is 1,800” comes from!

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