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Its written in a study text answer that preference shareholders have an implied right of voting.. equal to ordinary shareholders.
But on the internet its showing preference shareholders dont usually have voting rights , if it is to have, it should be explicilty mentioned in articles.Is it implied or explicit right ?
I’d like to know the precise wording in the study text that tells you that they have an implied right of voting
My interpretation of the matter is that preference shareholders would only have a vote if they were expressly allowed a vote according to the articles
Let me know the precise wording please
OK?
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