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Could someone confirm that the answer to the point 1 about the benefit for the use of yacht really is £554 please? Is it correct that Renner has to pay £231 in relation to the running expenses? I thought that it would again be calculated as 20% * £6000 *2/52… I’m getting really confused here…
Thank you in anticipation.
Also…. How did we know what dividend does he get? I don’t understand the 40p per share…
The 20% rule is for the use of an asset – the apportionment of the expense is simply 2 weeks worth of a 52 week annual expense.
The dividend is given in the question – note 9So it will be 20%*42000+2/52*6000 right?
And how would the Private medical scheme for him and his family be treated?
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