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Dear sir,
I have a doubt from the June 2004 paper qn PolytotThe qn asks to calculate forms of hedging available to the co and calculate revenue to the co as a result of each hedge.
My qn is while calculating the futures, the Kaplan revsion kit has calculated futures hedges on only 60% of the expected receipt ie, $4124236
Why is that so? Why not on 100%? I mean, it can be converted from pesos to pounds to dollars right?
Appreciate if you can help me out
Thanks.
Correct me if I get this wrong but if there is an unofficial market that is doing worse than the offical market we are not in a position to consider that in the hedge?
This is confusing me.
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