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I need your help sir/friends.
I’ve go through the previous post about this topic but i can’t see the replied.
So sorry for asking the same quest again.But i really want to know how to calculate for NCI,why is it using 20% and including $10m-$2m
I thought nci calculation is the FV add the %of post acq.
Please help.
And also for RE why in examiner’s answer is inclusive deduction of (10-2) appearing 2 times.- Topics: 0
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The +10 is the adjustment to retained earnings relating to the leasehold property from note (ii). The -2 is the extra depreciation arising from the adjustments for note (ii). Both of these affect Ls retained earnings at the year end and hence the share of post acquisition profit in the NCI and retained earnings workings.
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