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Please help me with opearting lease question from Kaplan?

Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA FR Financial Reporting Forums › Please help me with opearting lease question from Kaplan?

  • This topic has 1 reply, 1 voice, and was last updated 9 years ago by sara.
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  • February 6, 2017 at 3:07 pm #371347
    sara
    Participant
    • Topics: 14
    • Replies: 17
    • ☆

    Hello everyone, i really need your help with the question below as i could not understand how did they get prepayment for operating lease.

    A company is leasing an asset under a 4 year operating lease. 
    The initial non-­refundable deposit is $1,000 on 1 January of year 1 followed  by 4 annual payments in arrears of $1,000 each on 31 December of  years 1, 2, 3 and 4.
     
    What is the charge to the statement of profit or loss and any amount to appear in the statement of financial position at the end of year 1 of the lease?

    here is an answer
    Statement of profit or loss $   
    Operating lease rental   ($5000/4 years)  1,250 
    Statement of financial position
    Current assets:  Prepayments   ($1,000 deposit/4yrs × 3yrs)   750 

    I really dont know how they have calculated the prepayment for that i am so clueless right now.and what if we had an accrual instead of prepayment.

    please i would really appreciate it if you help me with this

    Thanking you in advance.

    February 7, 2017 at 3:07 am #371394
    sara
    Participant
    • Topics: 14
    • Replies: 17
    • ☆

    i guess i understood the concept.correct me if i am wrong
    so the total lease payments are $5000 (($1000 (initial ) + ($1000 * 4))
    Annual payment is charged therefore $5000/4 = 1250 to the statement of profit or loss
    NOW there are two payments made in one year,first at $1000 of initial non refundable deposit on 1 jan and second one is also $1000 at 31 dec in the same year.
    it makes a total of 2000 amount paid in 1 year
    now the difference between amount paid is $2000 and amount charged $1250 is $750
    which means we already paid our liability in excess hence its a prepayment
    if let’s say the amount paid was less than amount charged then it would be accrual as we still yet have to pay the liability for this year
    am i right?

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