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Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › perpetuity
Sir,
suppose perpetuity starts from year 5, DCF 10%
So can i calculate pv of cash flow at year 5 in following way
perpetuity 1/0.10 = 10
annuity
(4year) (3.170)
Difference = 10 – 3.170
= 6.830
pv at year 5 in perpetuity = FV * 6.830
Actually i didn’t understand the Logic behind the calculation given in BPP text book
Yes – you can calculate it that way 🙂
The answer will be exactly the same apart from rounding (because the tables only go to 3 decimal places) but that is not a problem in the exam.
Hi John
Can you please explain this bit.
pv at year 5 in perpetuity = FV * 6.830?
Many Thanks,
Noureen
No!
You should read the earlier posts and watch the free lectures.
I am sorry, but I am not going to type out all of my Paper F9 and Paper F2 (because this is revision of F2) lectures here 🙂
