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Stephen Widberg.
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- August 9, 2020 at 10:39 am #579704
Anonymous
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Hi Sir,
I am a bit confused on the given example in your lecture on lease accounting treatment (Example 4, lessee accounting, page 83, Plum).
The year 1 lease payment is paid in advance: $5000 on 1/1/2015. So the lease liability ($22730) is the present value of the future cash payments in 4 instalments: $5000 each on 1/1 from 2016 to 2019.
I don’t get it why the $5000 needs to be deducted from the lease liability to calculate the amortised finance cost for year 1. I assume that $5000 is the initial payment on 1/1/2015, right? Shouldn’t that not part of the liability rationaled in the above paragraph?
I concur in year 2, $5000 should be deducted from the liability brought forward from year 1.
August 9, 2020 at 6:42 pm #579764The present value of the minimum lease payments is 22730
So the present value of the future lease payments will be 17 730
I think that will put you back on the right track
August 11, 2020 at 5:48 pm #580154Anonymous
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Oh, silly me, I mistook 5000*(1+3.546) as 5000*3.546. Thank you for pointing out.
August 12, 2020 at 3:23 pm #580278My pleasure.
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