What is the reason behind payable days remaining constant even when sales, cost of sales have been decreasing for three consecutive years? for instance the payble days for year 2 and 3 remain constant? how do i explain it?
year 1 year 2 year 3
sales 77119557 79000314 63687754
cost of sales -33928169 -37556552 -36011992
trade payables 9,602,383 8,059,754 7,654,365