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past exam

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › past exam

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 7 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
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  • November 1, 2017 at 8:00 am #414017
    shilpamary
    Member
    • Topics: 99
    • Replies: 81
    • ☆☆

    i had typed these q’s yesterday dont know why i cant see now

    in q 3 part b (ii) why do we take 715 at end of third year? why adding 329 at end of third year??

    in part c of same question how to work out option swap? could you explain me the way u made us all understand interest rate option?

    in q(4) why do we divide 109/104??

    November 2, 2017 at 7:13 am #414092
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54738
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The question says that there is a swap of the principal immediately and in three years time, and that both are at todays spot rate – this is what the 715 is.

    The agreement only covers the initial cost of $5,000. So when they receive $7500 at the end of three years, the extra $2500 has to be converted at the spot rate on 3 years time.

    There is not an option swap! The questions asks you to compare using options with using a swap – they are two separate things.

    In Q4. it is because the bond has a current market value of 104. It has a coupon rate of 9% and is redeemable in 1 years time, so in 1 year the receipt will be 100 + 9 = 109.

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