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Hi
Has anyone else tried Parker question yet as i’m really struggling on the interest side of things, I’ve attempted question on my own first and found it quite difficult in comparing my ans to the model ans
Can anyone help on where the interest bearing debt of 12725 came from
ThanksHere’s an extract from the printed solution – see if that helps
“The finance charge expensed in the statement of profit or loss and other comprehensive income appears very low when compared to the company’s level of interest bearing debt and its overdraft. To illustrate, the year-end interest bearing debt and overdraft is $12·725 million ($11·825 million non-current liabilities + $900,000 overdraft), ………….”
Thanks a million Mike ,much appreciated , was getting so caught up on the question that sometimes common sense goes out the window
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