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Pangli Co

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › Pangli Co

  • This topic has 7 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 3 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 8 posts - 1 through 8 (of 8 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • June 4, 2022 at 2:42 pm #657358
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 29
    • Replies: 39
    • ☆☆

    1. Is supply chain financing in the syllabus and can it be examined as a section C question?

    2. Is the formula for cash inflow=Opening Receivables-Closing Receivables+ (Cash&Credit Sales or Credit sales only)-Pangli Co BPP

    June 4, 2022 at 3:35 pm #657362
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54835
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    1. Yes, it is in the syllabus. It could be relevant for a written part of a Section C question, but not very likely.

    2. Cash received from credit sales is opening receivables + credit sales – closing receivables.

    Total cash received from sales is the cash received from credit sales + cash sales.

    June 4, 2022 at 5:45 pm #657374
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 29
    • Replies: 39
    • ☆☆

    One more question.In OTQ Bank BV Q226, I got an answer through discounting $0.25 & $0.50 to T0 and also using the DVM to discount 0.50*1.03 to T3 then discount further to T0. However, the marking scheme said the present value of the growth was in T2. Can you tell me what I missed?

    June 5, 2022 at 9:25 am #657419
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54835
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Had the first growing dividend been at time 1, then the formula would give the PV at time 0.

    Here the first is at time 3, which is 2 years later than time 1, and therefore the PV is 2 years later also and is at time 2.

    June 5, 2022 at 9:50 am #657428
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 29
    • Replies: 39
    • ☆☆

    Here the first growth happens in T4, so PV would’ve been T3 wouldn’t it? If PV was T2 like the answer said, then D1 would be 0.25*(1+g) which completely ignores 0.50 dividends in T3.

    June 5, 2022 at 3:34 pm #657447
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54835
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You can get the same answer in two ways (and it doesn’t matter which way you choose).

    In the formula for Po, the numerator (Do(1+g)) is the dividend in 1 years time (the current dividend plus growth).

    So put yourself at time 2, and then the dividend at time 3 is 0.50 and therefore the PV at time 2 is 0.50 / (0.10 – 0.3) = 7.14. Discount this for 2 years and the PV at time 0 is $5.90. (and add this to the PV’s of the dividends at time 1 and time 2,

    Alternatively put your self at time 3 and therefore the PV at time 3 is (0.50 (1.03))/(0.10 – 0.03) = 7.36. Adding this to the 0.50 dividend at time 3 gives 7.86. Discount this for 3 years and it gives a PV at time 0 of $5.90 as before (and add this to the PV’s of the dividends at time 1 and time 3).

    June 5, 2022 at 4:04 pm #657455
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 29
    • Replies: 39
    • ☆☆

    Thank you Sir 🙂

    June 5, 2022 at 4:11 pm #657458
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54835
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome.

  • Author
    Posts
Viewing 8 posts - 1 through 8 (of 8 total)
  • The topic ‘Pangli Co’ is closed to new replies.

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