Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA APM Exams › P5 JUNE 12
- This topic has 4 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by Ken Garrett.
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- August 19, 2015 at 12:16 pm #267758
HI SIR
1.I have question in paper june12. For Q1 part (b), when calculate the MIRR, CAN I use the equation of MIRR=(pv of return phrase/ pv of initial investment)*(1+discount factor)-1. in the answer of calculating the NPV, we know the pv of return phrase and pv of initial investment and discount factor. However, the answer is different with the examiner’s method. which one is correct or both of them are correct?
thanks sirAugust 19, 2015 at 12:35 pm #267761Either way is acceptable.
August 19, 2015 at 12:41 pm #267762Thanks.
November 10, 2015 at 2:35 am #281369Sir does this means that it is acceptable to assume that the fcf is reinvested at cost of capital i.e 12.5% instead of 4.5% as calculated by the examiner?
And does this mean we can use pv at yr 0 to calculate the pv of return phase and pv of investment phase as per the formula given in exam?
November 10, 2015 at 9:12 am #281433Yes. I don’t think there is a consensus.
Using the formula approach just uses the cost of capital. Using the examiner’s way uses the deposit rate also. The question is why are receipts simply deposited when they could be probably invested at the cost of capital.
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