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P5 course notes chapter 16 example1

Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA APM Advanced Performance Management Forums › P5 course notes chapter 16 example1

  • This topic has 5 replies, 5 voices, and was last updated 15 years ago by AvatarAnonymous.
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  • March 28, 2011 at 9:50 am #47914
    Avatarleihong8
    Member
    • Topics: 6
    • Replies: 4
    • ☆

    regarding P5 course notes chapter 16 example 1, can you let me know how you worked out the figures 113, 84, 63, 47, (107) for tax on saving on capital allowed?
    thanks

    March 28, 2011 at 10:14 am #80492
    Avatarshine05
    Member
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 16
    • ☆

    This is the tax saving on machine investment. The question states clearly that capital allowances are based on reducing balance i.e 25%. Therefore, the figures are as follows:
    Year Beginning balance Capital allowance Tax saving
    Year 1: 1,800 450 113
    Year 2: 1,350 338 84
    ……
    Year 5: 570 570 143

    However, scrap is $1,000 at the end of year 5, so tax expense would be ($1,000*.25)= $250.
    Therefore, tax responsibility of year 5 would be (250-143)=$107
    Hope that helps

    March 28, 2011 at 10:41 am #80493
    Avatarcatalina
    Member
    • Topics: 3
    • Replies: 21
    • ☆

    The first 25% is the rate for capital allowances while second one is 25% the rate of tax.When you calculate the capital allowances you calculate the tax saved on that capital allowance. For the next year you subtract capital allowance from the cost of the machine,then calculate the tax allowance on the written down value as follows:
    Year

    1 1,800,000 * 25% = 450,000 * 25% =112,500
    2 1800,000-450000= 1350000*25%=337500*25%=84375
    3 1350000-337500= 1012500*25%=253125*25%=63,281.25
    4 1,012,500-253125= 759375*25%=189,843.75*25%=47,460.94
    For year 5 get the total of all capital allowances (450,000+337,500+253,125+189,843.75)=1,230,468.75 & add 1,000,000 which is scrap value,you will get 2,230468.75 then subtract from machine cost of 1,800,000. you will get 430,468.75 then tax this figure at 25%.

    I hope this will help you.

    March 28, 2011 at 1:57 pm #80494
    Avatarantoniorasco
    Member
    • Topics: 3
    • Replies: 18
    • ☆

    Another way:

    Year 1: 1800k x 0.25 x 0.25 = 113
    Year 2: 1800k x 0.75 x 0.25 x 0.25 = 84
    Year 3: 1800k x 0.75x 0.75 x 0.25 x 0.25 = 63
    Year 4: 1800k x 0.75x 0.75 x 0.75 x 0.25 x 0.25 = 47
    Year 5: Total (1800-100) x 0.25 less tax saved to date (113+84+63+47) = 107 to repay

    March 29, 2011 at 9:03 am #80495
    Avatarleihong8
    Member
    • Topics: 6
    • Replies: 4
    • ☆

    thank you all for your help. I understand now.

    Lei

    April 6, 2011 at 3:58 pm #80496
    AvatarAnonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 9
    • ☆

    Hi,
    Example 1:

    Anybody know the work out of Net cash flow :
    Year 2 – 510, Year 3-494, Year 4 -1700, Year 5-(167) and the d.f.rate @5%.

    Example 2:
    NPV = -61 at 15%, anyone know how will be 15%.

    Thanks,
    Fanny

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