Skip to content
ACCA exam results — Are you ready?Chat about it >>

Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM

P4 revisioin question

3310zcx11y ago
Hi John, I have question on paper JUNE 08, for Q3, the part(a). in this part. I did like this borrow now for two month: 1.5/(1+0.0375)=1.446Euro convert at spot (receive Euro, then sell Euro, and buy CHF) 1.446*1.6239=2.3481 invest CHF 2.3481*(1+r)=2.4299. so r=3.48% what's wrong with my answer? thanks!
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor11y ago#1
Firstly, the business will be receiving Swiss Francs in 2 months time and so it is Swiss Francs that they need to borrow now in order to do a money market hedge (and then convert them to Euros now, and then deposit the Euros for 2 months). Secondly, intere rates given in the exam (as in real life) are always quoted as yearly rates (even though they are actually applied to shorter periods).
3310zcx11y ago#2
The second point I understood. However, for your first point. From our lecture notes, money market hedges should borrow or invest foreign currency. Also the question states that company will receive Euro in two month. So I think for parent company they will receive Euro and then sell Euro and buy France. So why should I borrow France now not Euro. It is conflict with notes said. Thanks.
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor11y ago#3
No - the question says that they will receive the equivalent of 1.5M euros - not that they will receive euros. They will receive SFr.
3310zcx11y ago#4
Oh. I misunderstood meanings of this sentence. Thanks John so much.
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor11y ago#5
You are welcome :-)
Sign in to reply to this topic.