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- This topic has 134 replies, 61 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by Sophie.
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- December 8, 2015 at 7:55 pm #289306
Can anyone specify whether consideration for goodwill is translated at the current rate or historical rate? I forgot this important fact before taking the test and used historical, since it resulted in a prettier number π
Q1 — Time-consuming. Dealing with a net pension liability instead of a separate liability/asset threw me as I wasn’t sure how to deal with contributions/payouts. The foreign exchange made things needlessly complicated and I kind of wish we’d gotten a sub-subsidiary or D-shaped group instead.
Q2 — Avoided. Seemed like a classic technicality trap.
Q3 — Joint operation. Could not remember for the life of me which IFRS governed that, so I hope I didn’t lose a point. Wrote that nothing should be provided for as management’s intent alone is not enough to constitute an obligation to transfer resources (it needs a legal or constructive obligation). I’ve seen this get fudged in the study materials, but for god’s sake, that’s what the flashcard says. BPP absolutely hammers home that major repairs are not to be provided for, so I’m going to absolutely enraged if the examiner finds some stupid excuse for it.
Q4 — Easy points on the 4 remaining steps, but the part about what qualifies someting for IFRS 15 treatment — I don’t remember this in BPP at all, so I waxed poetic on what doesn’t qualify for IFRS 15 treatment (financial instrument stuff, sale of PP&E, etc.) and hoped for the best. I wrote that the copier sale required a contract liability per IFRS 15 terminology (deferred revenue) as title wouldn’t transfer. I was confused on whether the 2-year intervening period constituted a lease, or if I needed to discount anything, or what. For the percentage of completion job, I recalculated the POC to 60% or somewhere around there (ugly number) due to the revised estimates, and then I messed up the balance sheet in epic fashion by taking cost less profit to arrive at some kind of contract asset. Sigh…
It’s too much to memorize. I’ve dumped 250 hours into studying P2 and it’s still too much to bear while working with a Big Four firm that’s unsympathetic and refuses to give me any study time. It’s my bad luck, too, that the test dates all sync up with year-end busy seasons. Sometimes I think I need to quit working for a year to pass this stupid test.
December 8, 2015 at 8:02 pm #289309But remember it is a “specialised asset”. It cannot be used in any other way
December 8, 2015 at 8:24 pm #289318Goodwill should be converted at CLOSING RATE
Joint Operation was IFRS 11 (but don’t think you lose marks if you did not mention it)….
Copier – I think it needs to be discounted because it was over 2 years?
December 8, 2015 at 8:44 pm #289324Question 1 confident on computation part all the fiddly bits I got tied up in and just made assumptions and moved on.
Part b struggled on this question. Part c was OK regarding ethics hoping to get half marksI did question 2 about the licenses I wrote about intangible assets warranty provisions expected values etc, leases which I said was operating lease.
Question 4 reasonable section a should pick up some marks. B can’t quite remember put about deferred income over 2 years. Second part I wrote about construction contracts and a little on ias10.
Very time pressured but first go at it doing self study in 3 hours managed to attempt everything. Feel like it was reasonable effort hope I do enough to pass if not back to the grind
December 8, 2015 at 9:30 pm #289341Correctly. It was operating lease, as it was for 20 years and for land we cannot determine a useful life unless the ownership is transferred. In addition, the present value of minimum lease payments were 89% of the Fair Value. To be considered substantial, it has be to be more than 90 % of the fair value. Finally, the lessee did not have right to purchase the asset at bargain price at the end of lease term
December 8, 2015 at 9:32 pm #289345@modernaire said:
Can anyone specify whether consideration for goodwill is translated at the current rate or historical rate? I forgot this important fact before taking the test and used historical, since it resulted in a prettier number πQ1 — Time-consuming. Dealing with a net pension liability instead of a separate liability/asset threw me as I wasn’t sure how to deal with contributions/payouts. The foreign exchange made things needlessly complicated and I kind of wish we’d gotten a sub-subsidiary or D-shaped group instead.
Q2 — Avoided. Seemed like a classic technicality trap.
Q3 — Joint operation. Could not remember for the life of me which IFRS governed that, so I hope I didn’t lose a point. Wrote that nothing should be provided for as management’s intent alone is not enough to constitute an obligation to transfer resources (it needs a legal or constructive obligation). I’ve seen this get fudged in the study materials, but for god’s sake, that’s what the flashcard says. BPP absolutely hammers home that major repairs are not to be provided for, so I’m going to absolutely enraged if the examiner finds some stupid excuse for it.
Q4 — Easy points on the 4 remaining steps, but the part about what qualifies someting for IFRS 15 treatment — I don’t remember this in BPP at all, so I waxed poetic on what doesn’t qualify for IFRS 15 treatment (financial instrument stuff, sale of PP&E, etc.) and hoped for the best. I wrote that the copier sale required a contract liability per IFRS 15 terminology (deferred revenue) as title wouldn’t transfer. I was confused on whether the 2-year intervening period constituted a lease, or if I needed to discount anything, or what. For the percentage of completion job, I recalculated the POC to 60% or somewhere around there (ugly number) due to the revised estimates, and then I messed up the balance sheet in epic fashion by taking cost less profit to arrive at some kind of contract asset. Sigh…
It’s too much to memorize. I’ve dumped 250 hours into studying P2 and it’s still too much to bear while working with a Big Four firm that’s unsympathetic and refuses to give me any study time. It’s my bad luck, too, that the test dates all sync up with year-end busy seasons. Sometimes I think I need to quit working for a year to pass this stupid test.
Colleague – here you’ve it. We MUST practice to read the technical articles before we enter the exam on the final day.
You may have loose some easy marks, but the markers should have mercy – all the way!!!
December 8, 2015 at 11:02 pm #289372Woaaa seems like I got lucky by doing the September paper, the lease issue seems like a nightmare.
My experience is that this paper is fairly. I doesn’t really matter what you came up with it’s the methodology you used to get there. The classification will be worth 1 mark
December 8, 2015 at 11:55 pm #289386P2 needs more time or reduction in question parts . We should have the time to think and apply standard properly. Always in a hurry makes it impossible to attempt exam properly
December 9, 2015 at 1:48 am #289391AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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Friend you were told in the question to attempt all questions and not complete all questions! Thus time management is not an issue.
December 9, 2015 at 4:17 am #289404I wanted to know.. Is p2 marking a lineant one? Do they panelize you for a mistake once? Or is it that you get the whole answer incorrect if you have done a mistake in the calculations at the begining?
December 9, 2015 at 6:08 am #289417Can someone share what was the figure you got for the sofp? Managed to balance anyone?
December 9, 2015 at 6:22 am #289420I think 3a was a joint operations too. But it should be investment accounting and not equity accounting.
December 9, 2015 at 6:31 am #289422The paper was fair over all.
Its just that it was time pressuredQ1 I think I messed up with inter-company loan and may be other adjustments, but just decided to move on.
Any way provided one demonstrates the principle, accuracy is not an issue.Q4, was fair & I pray I dealt with the numerical parts plus their accounting treatments well as per IFRS 15.
Q2, I just attempted atleast every part of the question though not adequately like I wanted to coz I was caught up by time.
Keeping my fingers crossed for the best.
December 9, 2015 at 6:42 am #289424to me it was an operating lease because some important criteria for a finance type wasn’t on the side of the lessee, eg the gvt had rights to the proceeds of the sale, the lessee had no option of buying the land after the lease term, though the lease period was 30 years and 89% of pv of initial payt
December 9, 2015 at 7:04 am #289431What about the treatment on contingent liability on fairvalue of asset in qtn 1??
December 9, 2015 at 7:23 am #289432@anjujoseph said:
What about the treatment on contingent liability on fairvalue of asset in qtn 1??i think its a trap. it is ‘possible’, so it should only be disclosed. i think.
December 9, 2015 at 9:44 am #289511AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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All identifiable liabilities should be valued at fair value, which was $1m in the case of the contingent liability.
So you take it off the net assets at acqn and reporting dates.
December 9, 2015 at 10:36 am #289529nope because it was land and according to ias 17 land can be only classify as finance lease if title is passed to leasee,
December 9, 2015 at 10:37 am #289531i got 621 on assets and 625 on l equity/liabilities
December 9, 2015 at 10:41 am #289535i just got -1.5 after adjusting ex loss,
December 9, 2015 at 11:19 am #289550AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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Guys, can you help me here regarding the version of the P2 exam that I am going to take for next time?
Shall I study on UK or Int version, I am resident of the UK?
I am confused for what versoin I am supposed to take.
Could you please answer who knows the better reason for the paper versions?
Thank youDecember 9, 2015 at 11:21 am #289552That is exactly what I did as well…
Fair Value Adjustment for Contingent Liability $1m (minus) which is included both at acquisition and reporting dates.
The question said it was disclosed at $5m (disclosed i.e. – not accounted…) but the fair value was $1m which I think had to be included, by including it with the FV of Net Asset (hence the minus).
December 9, 2015 at 11:25 am #289556Yikes I got 611 on assets and 621 on equity/liabilities
December 9, 2015 at 11:27 am #289557I have been attempting the UK version – am resident in the UK as well.
The UK version is very similar to the INTERNATIONAL, except for the new FRSs 101-102-103 which came in force on 01Jan15. There are not much differences, and questions in the UK variant normally relates to explain/identify differences between IFRSs for SME and FRS 102.
Hope this helps.I think there is also explanations given on the ACCA portal about this.
December 9, 2015 at 11:36 am #289561AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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Thank you very much
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