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Hey Mike,
In Working2 when you used $9298 as NCI Goodwill B/F figure,this is on 01.01.2004, right? But as per question, $9298 is the figure as at 31.12.2004, so I think it should be the NCI Goodwill C/F figure instead. Can you explain to me?
Many thanks!
no this was the figure in 2002 i guess it say’s that same impairment is charged in 2004 that is of 30 %
well i have prob. n this example also why in retained earning we haven’t accounted for dividend’s as we do account for them when working for retained earning???
Hey Ahsanpervez,
Do you mean the Consolidated RE? It accounts for dividends already. Look at parent Grainger’s RE figure 110,000. It has already been deducted the dividend.
Back to my question again.yes, G/W was impared in 2002, but according to question, $9298 is the figure before impairment, and is as at 31 December,2004. So I dont know why it goes to NCI in 31.12.2003 when Mike is calculating the net G/W?
Hi
I had major problems trying to get the exact wording for this nci goodwill so that no-one would be left in any doubt as to where it has come from. And yet, whenever I look at the question again, I still have problems in trying to find a better way to express the situation.
I beg you, please do not get bogged down on this one point – Graham Holt is much cleverer than I, and he won’t leave you with any interpretation difficulties
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