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Hi Sir,
May I know in what situation we can issue ordinary shares that comes with no voting right??
Is it legally accepted to do so?? Any law mentioned it?
However, even though it may not relevant for f9, but just to hope to gain an undestanding more about ordinary shares.
Thanks Sir
If you want the tutor to respond you should ask on the ask the tutor forum as this is far more regularly checked by tutors.The situation you described can occur and in UK law it would be accomplished by having different classes of shares. For example, a company could have a class of shares with all the rights of ordinary shares but which have no voting rights attached.You could find out more if you check the law notes and lectures on this website.
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