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Option Pricing

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Option Pricing

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • December 7, 2017 at 1:02 pm #421512
    Shaharia
    Participant
    • Topics: 14
    • Replies: 10
    • ☆

    If d1=1.998
    then N(d1)=0.5+0.4767=.9767
    But in BPP text material it is written as
    N(d1)=.5+.4767+82/100(.4772-.4767)
    my question is why is that so and what is the reason behind using the 82/100 fraction? and is it possible to round the figure 1.998 as 2.
    Thankyou.

    December 7, 2017 at 3:40 pm #421603
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54829
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    It is because N(d1) is to 4 decimal places, but you can only look up in the tables for 2 decimal places. So they have approximated between the table figures for 1.99 and 2.00.

    However, if you round to 2 decimal places (and therefore use 2.00 here) then you will still get the marks. (If you have copied the figures correctly, then they should not have used 82/100 but 92/100, but I have not got the BPP Study Text and so I cannot check 🙂 )

    December 9, 2017 at 4:46 am #422172
    Shaharia
    Participant
    • Topics: 14
    • Replies: 10
    • ☆

    Sir, will you explain how the fraction 92/100 is calculated.
    Thankyou.

    December 9, 2017 at 7:07 am #422186
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54829
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The difference between 1.99 and 2.00 is 0.0100.

    The difference between 1.99 and 1.998 is 0.008

    0.0100 – 0.008 = 0.092, so 0.092/0.0100 or 92/100 🙂

  • Author
    Posts
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • The topic ‘Option Pricing’ is closed to new replies.

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