Hello, please can you let me know what is the correct calculation of operating profit variance % change against budget and prior year- to the same period eg.
YTD 30/09/2020
ACTUAL_ BUDGET_____PRIOR YEAR
(OP.Profit) 55000 __8000 ________104000
CHANGE AGAINST
BUDGET____PRIOR YEAR
x% ________x%
With the budget do we compare Budget to Actual (Budgeted- Actual/Budgeted)?
Eg.
BUDGETED (8K) to ACTUAL (55K)- So budgeted was £8000 less actual £55000= (47000)/ budgeted 8000 x 100% = -587.50% – I know is Favourable Variance but why is the % minus? Should I do ACTUAL- BUDGETED/BUDGETED instead?
With the change against prior year, do we compare Prior Year £104000 to Actual £55000= (104000-55000)/104000 x 100= 47.11% – I know it’s ADVERSE VARIANCE because op profit was higher last year that is now but don’t understand why is positive % not minus? Should it be Actual- Prior Year/Prior Year?
I appreciate your help, thank you!
Ask the Tutor ACCA PM
Operating profit variance
5y ago#1I am puzzled why you are asking this because you are not asked in the exam to give variances as %'s.
However, stating that a variance is either favourable or adverse automatically is stating whether it is better or worse and therefore a positive or negative sign is not required.
Everything needed for the exam in respect of variance analysis is covered in our free lectures for Paper PM.
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