Hi John,
The question states "Debt - $6M 10% debentures quoted at 105 ex int.". Should we not use the total value of the debentures (i.e. $6m x 1.05 = $6.3m) as the initial cash inflow from the issuance, and also for the cash outflows for the 6 years coupon payments at PV (i.e. $6m x 10% x (1 - 30%) x 4.355 = $1.83m)? Or we can just use the unit trading price of the debenture (i.e. $105)?
Many thanks.
Best regards,
Kenny
Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM
NPV - Debentures (Chapter 6, Example 10)
It doesn't matter whether you do the calculation on one debenture, or on the total of the debentures.
The answer will be exactly the same.
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