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Normal loss given as percentage of output

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA MA – FIA FMA › Normal loss given as percentage of output

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 6 years ago by John Moffat.
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  • February 14, 2019 at 11:59 pm #505156
    kingkongsajang
    Member
    • Topics: 95
    • Replies: 75
    • ☆☆

    Why is it that when normal loss is given as a percentage of output, that the output figure becomes 110%?

    E.g
    – normal loss is 10% of output.
    – there is no opening or closing inventory
    – input is 13200 units
    – total process cost is £184,800
    – normal loss has scrap value of £4 per unit

    The answer for amount of units of normal loss is 1200 units (13200/110×10) not 1320 units (13200×0.1)

    I’m really confused as to why the output is perceived as 110% when normal loss is quoted as a percentage of output.

    Thank you

    February 15, 2019 at 8:06 am #505174
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The output does not become 110%.

    If the loss is 10% of output, then for every 100 output the loss was 10 and it is therefore the input that is 110%.

    Since they input 13,200, the loss is 10/110 = 1,200 and therefore the output is 13,200 – 1,200 = 12,000. So it works, the loss of 1,200 is 10% of the output of 12,000.

    February 27, 2019 at 4:29 pm #506734
    kingkongsajang
    Member
    • Topics: 95
    • Replies: 75
    • ☆☆

    so the way to think about it is to think that the output must be 100% as a standard. Since there is a loss of 10% per output, in order for there to be 100% output 110% input must be inputted. therefore, even if there was no opening inventory or closing inventory left, the input would not = output right?

    February 28, 2019 at 9:28 am #506803
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    That is correct. The input will never equal the output if some units are lost.

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