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NCI – Non-Controlling Interest

Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA FR Financial Reporting Forums › NCI – Non-Controlling Interest

  • This topic has 6 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 14 years ago by Anonymous.
Viewing 7 posts - 1 through 7 (of 7 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • August 26, 2010 at 8:33 am #45074
    debbieche
    Member
    • Topics: 12
    • Replies: 13
    • ☆

    What is the approved way of calculating NCI?

    August 30, 2010 at 10:20 am #67192
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23321
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    OT will say “the OT way”! I find that the OT way is easier and quicker than the BPP / Kaplan way. The problem lies in understanding the different ways in which Steve Scott can give you the information in order for you to calculate nci.

    But the OT notes cover all four possibilities

    August 31, 2010 at 1:15 pm #67193
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    In the income statement:
    NCI = netproft of subsidiary x %ge ownership of NCI
    NB the netprofit figure is after adjustments such as unrealised profit in the books of subsidiary for goods in parent’s inventory

    In statement of Financial Position
    NCI = net assets of subsidiary x %ge ownership of NCI

    NB The net assets figure is after any necessary adjustment

    Regards,

    September 1, 2010 at 7:11 pm #67194
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23321
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Yes, agreed, but may need to time-apportion the subsidiary profits ( where the subsidiary was acquired part way through the current year ) in the calculation for the nci on the Income Statement

    September 2, 2010 at 6:00 am #67195
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    Yes thats right.

    Do you recognise ACCA’s treatment of unrealised profit in Non currents assets sold by parent to subsidiary. This unrealised profit is adjusted from the profits of the parent net of the related excess depreciation i.e reducing the parent retained income by (total unrealised profit on asset sale less excess depreciation on the unrealised profit to date).

    In my opinion, what would appear correct was that the excess depreciation from the overvaluation af the subsidiary’s asset acquired from parent at fair value was supposed to be an adjustment to the profit of the subsidiary itself.. i.e. add back excess depreciation to subsidiry’s profit. Then calculate NCI based on such an adjusted figure..
    Am I making any sense? What do you guys think?

    September 2, 2010 at 8:06 am #67196
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23321
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    That’s the way I do it in the OT notes, and in the audio lectures

    September 2, 2010 at 8:49 am #67197
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    Hi werty,

    That’s great… I was referring to Kaplan text to imply ACCA’s view, since the Kaplan texts are approved by ACCA. They(Kaplan) are the ones who deduct URP from the seller but net of depreciation, instead of deducting the excess depreciation from the sub who bought the asset and went on to charge the excess deptn.

    However, the ACCA examiner in December 2007 recommends that approach(Kaplan’s) in his sollution to question 1 (as per post exam guidance/answers)

    Could it be that ACCA approved Kaplan notes and your good plausible notes (which I concur with on this point of URP, as you say it)could differ on certains key points?

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