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NCI calculation for a D-shaped group

Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA SBR Strategic Business Reporting Forums › NCI calculation for a D-shaped group

  • This topic has 7 replies, 6 voices, and was last updated 11 years ago by khondowebn@gmail.com.
Viewing 8 posts - 1 through 8 (of 8 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • April 27, 2011 at 5:47 pm #48257
    Boot81
    Member
    • Topics: 11
    • Replies: 11
    • ☆

    Hi everyone.

    The study text says that the calculation of NCI interest in a D-shaped group is as follows:

    NCI at acquisition
    NCI share of post-acquisition ret earnings
    Less NCI share of investment in the sub-subsidiary.

    I dont understand why the proportionate NCI-share of the investment in the sub-subsidiary is deducted from the NCI interest. Can anyone help me??

    Thanks a lot.

    May 27, 2011 at 7:09 am #81264
    beyagala
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 53
    • ☆☆

    Hi Just need also help… Kaplan Mock.
    Complex Qn. Direct control was 30%the Indirect control is 60%*255 = 15% giving a total of 45%. I thought this was an Investment in Associate. But suprising the Answer says its a Subsidiary. Can any one tell me why

    May 29, 2011 at 7:15 pm #81265
    evalstngj
    Member
    • Topics: 14
    • Replies: 41
    • ☆☆

    It does not matter if effective control is less than 50% as long as the company controls its subsidiary and the subsidiary has a controlling interest in another company.

    May 30, 2011 at 7:03 am #81266
    beyagala
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 53
    • ☆☆

    Hi evalstnqi… Thanks for clarification. But Lahore in the Kaplan example acquired 60% of Barcelona and Barcelona had acquired 25% in Kumping.. I thought the 25% is Investment in Associate which is Significant Influence. Its not control.. What about that situation? Pliz just help.

    May 30, 2011 at 10:43 am #81267
    heather wiltshire
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 3
    • ☆

    Kunming has to be consolidated as part of the Lahore Group because although the effective interest is 45% this is used only for calculations i.e Goodwill and share of post acq profits and NCI. Because Lahore controls 60% of Barcelona that 60% also controls the 25% that Barcelona has in Kunming indirectly and Lahore has 30% control of Kunming directly. I hope that this helps. Check out RCABelfast on You Tube, those lectures really help.

    May 30, 2011 at 12:49 pm #81268
    beyagala
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 53
    • ☆☆

    Hi, Heather Wiltshire, Thanks very much for clarification. I now get it.

    November 10, 2011 at 12:37 pm #81269
    khonkean
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 64
    • ☆☆

    Hi,
    sorry, I really don’t get this one.
    Lahore acquires 60% of Barcellona
    Barcelona acquires 25% of Kunming
    Therefore there is an indirect holding of 60% * 25%. (15%)
    There is also a direct holding of Kunming of 30%
    Total, direct and indirect is 45%.
    My issue is that Barcellona does not control Kunming (the subsidiary only have a 25% holding) so control cannot be assumed via that route and nor can it be acquired by the merged holdings (45%).
    There is no combination that I can see where the group or any member of it can control Kunmings directly or indirectly.
    Do you see my problem. I just cannot get my head around why Kunming is not an associate rather than a subsidiary.
    Anyone got any further pointers on this one as it’s a really good mock appart from this one issue that I just can’t see as a subsidiary situation and it’s pretty fundamental to the answer
    Many thanks in advance,
    Shaun.

    September 21, 2013 at 11:05 am #140964
    khondowebn@gmail.com
    Participant
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 1
    • ☆

    MINE IS A QUESTION ON THE SAME D SHAPED GROUP.

    IF P HOLDS 80% IN S, AND S HOLDS 75% IN SS, THEN P HOLDS 10% IN SS.

    WHAT’S THE DIRECT NCI IN SS, AND HOW DO I CALCULATE IT?

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