Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA APM Exams › monza sep dec 2016
- This topic has 4 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 4 years ago by Ken Garrett.
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- February 24, 2020 at 1:46 pm #562949
Hi ken
i don’t get this concept as explained in part iii of question 1.
“As ROCE is calculated based on
the return on total capital, it should not include financing costs and so profit before and after tax are not consistent with this
view”Total capital include long term loan. why it is saying in the argument that it should not include finance cost in its profit?
February 25, 2020 at 11:51 am #563085Broadly, a business has two sources of capital: equity and debt.
If it were all equity financed then ROCE is
Profit before tax and dividend/ Capital employed (= Equity = share capital plus reserves).
Dividends are a reward to shareholders, not an expense.
Alternatively, if the business were all debt financed, the ROCE would be
Profit before tax and interest/ Capital employed (= debt).
In this case interest is the reward to suppliers of capital and should not be regarded as an expense.
For mixed capital companies
ROCE = PBIT/Total capital employed.
February 25, 2020 at 1:23 pm #563096thanks alot tutor
February 25, 2020 at 2:52 pm #563110for return on equity is it profit after tax and before dividend?
February 25, 2020 at 10:08 pm #563146Yes.
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