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Modigliani and Miller vs. CAPM

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Modigliani and Miller vs. CAPM

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • August 8, 2016 at 2:28 pm #332045
    Daniel
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 2
    • ☆

    Could you please give a hint on:
    when are we supposed to use CAPM vs MM when it comes the ACCA P4 exam? Is it that we use CAPM is we have a Beta in the question; otherwise it is MM?

    I am losing it! I feel most of you would laugh, but I know 2 more students that can’t answer the question.

    August 8, 2016 at 4:57 pm #332069
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54833
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    It is not a question of M&M as against CAPM.

    M&M deal with the affect of gearing. CAPM deals with the effect of business risk.
    There is a CAPM formula that allows us to measure the business risk when we know the full risk (including gearing) and vice versa – but that formula effectively comes from M&M.

    If you want to ask about specific questions then I will explain why they have done what they have done, but otherwise you really should watch my free lectures where I explain both M&M and CAPM (and the relationship) in detail.

    (And you should suggest the same think to the other 2 students you know 🙂 )

    August 9, 2016 at 11:11 pm #332289
    Daniel
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 2
    • ☆

    Thank you! We did watch…
    I guess we need to watch again or just be happy with only “13 exams”:)

    August 10, 2016 at 7:02 am #332323
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54833
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Do watch again, but also do ask if you have a problem on this in any specific past exam questions and I will explain.

    But again, it is never a choice between M&M and CAPM – they are looking at two different (albeit connected) aspects of risk.

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