In question 27 on the Open Tuition Mock, the answer states that the discount should be taken as the effective rate 20.1% is more than the cost of borrowing 15%. I thought if the effective rate was higher you do not accept? As it is higher than the cost of borrowing?
In question 29, why do you multiply year one and year two inflation rates instead of just taking year 2??
For your first question, have you watched the free lectures on this? It is cheaper to borrow and pay early and get the discount, then to delay and lose the discount.
For your second question, because it needs inflating for two years!