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Mock Exam Question

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA PM Exams › Mock Exam Question

  • This topic has 7 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 8 posts - 1 through 8 (of 8 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • November 26, 2015 at 4:49 pm #285522
    Jodie-Kay
    Participant
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 0
    • ☆

    E co makes two products- X and Y- Budgeted details are as fallows

    X Y
    $ $
    Selling Price 24.00 19.20

    Cost Per unit:
    Direct Material 8.40 9.60
    Direct Labor 3.60 2.40
    Variable Overhead 1.44 0.96
    Fixed Overhead 2.88 2.40

    Profit per unit 7.68 3.84

    The fixed overhead included in X relates to an apportionment of general overhead cost only. However Y also includes specific fixed overhead totalling to $6,000

    If only product X were to be made, How many units would need to be sold to in order to achieve a profit of $144,000?

    November 26, 2015 at 6:10 pm #285539
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54657
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    X makes a contribution of 7.68 + 2.88 = 10.56 per unit.

    The total fixed overheads at the moment are (10,000 x 2.88) + (12,500 x 2.40) = 58,800
    (you did not copy the budgeted units in your question).

    If Y is not produced, then the total fixed overheads fall by 6,000 to 52,800.

    To achieve a profit of 144,000 they need to get a contribution from X totalling 144,000 + 52,800 = 196,800

    So the number of units of X that need to be sold is 196,800 / 10.56 = 18,636 units

    November 27, 2015 at 8:33 am #285647
    dhameelolar
    Member
    • Topics: 13
    • Replies: 68
    • ☆☆

    if i may ask, since Y is not produced the only reason why we’re not excluding the $24,000 is because it relates to general overheads?

    November 27, 2015 at 8:43 am #285649
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54657
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Correct – the general overheads will still be incurred whatever we decide to produce.

    November 27, 2015 at 8:51 am #285654
    dhameelolar
    Member
    • Topics: 13
    • Replies: 68
    • ☆☆

    thank you, i have another question as regards relevant costing, when dealing with relevant costs for labour if labour is fully utilized, the relevant consists of the contribution forgone in the other product plus the current cost of labour per hour, is this correct

    November 27, 2015 at 1:36 pm #285695
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54657
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    That is correct 🙂

    November 27, 2015 at 3:48 pm #285748
    dhameelolar
    Member
    • Topics: 13
    • Replies: 68
    • ☆☆

    i saw a bpp question in which after doing this, a variable overhead cost was included in the computation

    November 27, 2015 at 4:03 pm #285753
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54657
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    That is correct if the variable overheads are being charged per hour. In that case they are treated the same way as labour. (Although that has never actually been asked in the real exam.)

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