- This topic has 3 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by .
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
- You must be logged in to reply to this topic.
Interactive BPP books for June 2026 exams, recommended by OpenTuition.
Get discount code >>
Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA MA – FIA FMA › Mock Exam
Q1. This year, the output is 5,000 units and the overhead cost is $31,000.
Three year ago, the output was 2,000 units and the overhead cost was $8,800.
The price index was 132 three years ago and is 164 this year.
Using high low technique, what is the variable cost per unit (to the nearest $0.01) expressed in current year prices?
Q2. Cherry Ltd Information:
Sales (all credit) $500,000
Purchases (credit) $200,000
Operating Profit $40,000
Capital Employed $200,000
Average receivable $30,000
Average Payables $16,000
No;of books sold 60,000
No, of books returned 1,200
No of on time deliveries 58200
No: of website visits 6000000
Calculate the assets turnover?
Calculate the % of website visits converted into sales (to the nearest%)?
Dear Sir,
Good day to you.
Kindly explain the above questions?
Q1 The cost 3 years ago was 8,800. If we express it in current year prices it is 164/132 x 8800 = 10933.
Now it becomes a normal high-low question. High is 5,000 units, cost $31,000; Low is 2,000 units, cost $10,933
Q2 Asset turnover = sales / capital employed = 500,000 / 200,000
Website visits that become sales = number sold / number of visits = 60,000 / 6,000,000
Dear John
How do we calculate the receivable and payable days from the info provided?
Receivables are 30,000; total sales on credit are 500,000.
Therefore the receivables days are 30,000/500,000 x 365 = 21.9 days
Payables are 16,000, total purchases are 200,000.
Therefore the payables days are 16,000/200,000 x 365 = 29.2 days
