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M&M Prop 2 – cost of equity

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › M&M Prop 2 – cost of equity

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 2 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • May 16, 2023 at 7:10 pm #684474
    james8500
    Participant
    • Topics: 68
    • Replies: 17
    • ☆☆

    ke = kei + (1 – T)(kei – kd )(Vd / Ve)

    Moondog Co is a company with a 20:80 debt: equity ratio. Using CAPM,
    its cost of equity has been calculated as 12%.

    It is considering raising some debt finance to change its gearing ratio to
    25:75 debt to equity. The expected return to debt holders is 4% per year,
    and the rate of corporate tax is 30%.

    Required:
    Calculate the theoretical cost of equity in Moondog Co after the
    refinancing.

    ANSWER:

    Using M+M’s Proposition 2 equation, we can degear the existing ke and
    then regear it to the new gearing level:
    Degearing:
    ke = kei + (1 – T)(kei – kd)(Vd/Ve)
    12% = kei + (1 – 0.30)(kei – 4% )(20/80)
    Now we need to rearrange this formula:
    0.12 = kei + (1-0.30)( kei – 0.04)(20/80)
    0.12 = kei + (0.7)( kei – 0.04)(0.25)
    0.12 = kei + (0.175)( kei – 0.04)
    0.12 = kei + 0.175 kei – 0.007
    0.12 = 1.175 kei – 0.007
    0.127 = 1.175 kei
    (0.127/1.175) = kei

    So rearranging carefully gives kei = 0.108 (10.8%)
    Now regearing:
    ke = 10.8% + (1 – 0.30)(10.8% – 4%)(25/75)
    ke = 12.4%

    QUERY:

    Please can you take me through this formula step by step. I cannot get my head around this.
    How is the ‘0.007’ calculated?

    Where does the 1.175 come from? I can work out how to get the 0.175 (0.7*0.25).

    Please clarify the above.

    Many thanks in advance
    Rory

    May 17, 2023 at 7:58 am #684491
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54665
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I assume that you are happy with the first five lines of this

    ke = kei + (1 – T)(kei – kd)(Vd/Ve)
    12% = kei + (1 – 0.30)(kei – 4% )(20/80)
    Now we need to rearrange this formula:
    0.12 = kei + (1-0.30)( kei – 0.04)(20/80)
    0.12 = kei + (0.7)( kei – 0.04)(0.25)

    So…0.12 = kei + (0.7 x 0.25) (kei – 0.04)
    which gives:
    0.12 = kei + (0.175)( kei – 0.04)

    0.12 = kei + 0.175kei – (0.175 x 0.04)

    0.12 = kei + 0.175 kei – 0.007

    1kei + 0.175kei = 1.175Kei, so…..

    0.12 = 1.175 kei – 0.007

    The rest should now be clear.

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