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mm model with tax

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › mm model with tax

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 7 years ago by John Moffat.
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  • May 6, 2018 at 2:11 pm #450322
    sarahdaisy
    Member
    • Topics: 9
    • Replies: 1
    • ☆

    Hi sir,

    when calculating the value of a geared firm , we would add value of a ungeared firm and the present value of tax shield which I saw is calculated by multiplying Debt and tax rate.

    my question is do we do this because we are assuming the debt is perpetual?
    what if the debt is a fixed rate 5 year debt?

    Thank you!

    May 6, 2018 at 3:29 pm #450333
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54832
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    That is one way you could be expected to value a firm, but it would help to see the wording of the particular question.

    However, assuming that we are asked to take an APV approach then we would assume that the debt would be replaced as it matured and that therefore the gearing would be maintained and the interest payable in perpetuity.

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