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MJ23 Q1bi equity beta

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › MJ23 Q1bi equity beta

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 1 year ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • December 13, 2023 at 3:46 pm #696720
    phuongmore
    Participant
    • Topics: 132
    • Replies: 128
    • ☆☆☆

    Please explain why in MJ23 Q1bi , to calculate equity beta, the answer: 0.97*(1+(1-0.18)*0.3/0.7) = 1.31
    I think the answer should be : 0.97*(0.7+(1-0.18)*0.3/0.7) = 1.01
    Per question, debt/equity ratio is 30:70, hence Ve should be 0.7 instead of 1 ?

    December 13, 2023 at 8:25 pm #696736
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54671
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The answer is correct. Because we know the asset beta we need to use the formula ‘backwards’ in order to calculate the equity beta.

    Ba = (Ve / (Ve + Vd(1-t)) x Be

    So Be = Ba x (Ve + Vd(1-T) / Ve

    So Be = Be x (1 + (Vd(1-T)/Ve))

    It is my last line that the examiners answer has used 🙂

    December 14, 2023 at 11:18 am #696778
    phuongmore
    Participant
    • Topics: 132
    • Replies: 128
    • ☆☆☆

    I understand, actually, my answer should be : 0.97*(0.7+(1-0.18)*0.3)/0.7) = 1.31
    Just add “)” after 0.3.
    Thank you.

    December 14, 2023 at 5:12 pm #696792
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54671
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

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Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • The topic ‘MJ23 Q1bi equity beta’ is closed to new replies.

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