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MIRR

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA APM Exams › MIRR

  • This topic has 2 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 4 years ago by akka17bakka.
Viewing 3 posts - 1 through 3 (of 3 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • September 30, 2020 at 7:53 pm #587082
    akka17bakka
    Participant
    • Topics: 105
    • Replies: 99
    • ☆☆☆

    Hello Tutor,

    Why in MIRR, we calculate the present value of negative cashflows. What is the logic behind it? Is it that we consider the negative cashflow as a loan taken out?

    Thank you.

    October 1, 2020 at 7:18 am #587095
    Ken Garrett
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 10
    • Replies: 10597
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    If carrying out an NPV calculation, all cash flows are discounted to their present values. MIRR seeks to simplify a complex pattern of cash flows to just two: one summarising outflows and one summarising inflows.

    Outflows become one outflow a Time 0 by adding together their PVs.

    Inflows become one inflow at the terminal time of the project by assuming they can be invested at a given interest rate as received then the terminal amount (receipts plus interest) released at the end of the project.

    The MIRR is the IRR of the two summarised flows.

    October 5, 2020 at 12:01 pm #587398
    akka17bakka
    Participant
    • Topics: 105
    • Replies: 99
    • ☆☆☆

    Thank you very much,

    God bless.

  • Author
    Posts
Viewing 3 posts - 1 through 3 (of 3 total)
  • The topic ‘MIRR’ is closed to new replies.

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