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MIRR

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › MIRR

  • This topic has 3 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 12 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
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  • November 20, 2012 at 12:13 pm #55526
    michael13011991
    Member
    • Topics: 10
    • Replies: 46
    • ☆☆

    for MIRR calculation:

    Investment phase= investment only (e.g; 600 invested for machinery) or investment less capital allowance

    Time of project: 1/n……is n equal to the duration of the project told (e.g; cash flows over 4 years) or do we use the entire duration (e.g; where because tax is paid 1 years in arrears-5 years)

    Finally, Issue cost pf finance (debt and equity)-do we include this in our cash flow forecast to find present value of return and investment phase?

    Note: The reason i asked is because several question in the BPP kit used but methods described about-so for december 2012, which one would our examiner perfer? thanks

    November 20, 2012 at 2:19 pm #108040
    dazhong0703
    Member
    • Topics: 44
    • Replies: 130
    • ☆☆

    1) investment only, coz capital allowance is operating cash flow (after contribution)
    2) n= 4 years (project life)
    3) issue cost is financing side effect, separate beta, therefore not included

    November 25, 2012 at 6:39 am #108041
    dazhong0703
    Member
    • Topics: 44
    • Replies: 130
    • ☆☆

    I saw from OpenTuition notes, n= project life, but I did a question ‘Neptune’, n= project life + 1

    November 25, 2012 at 9:43 am #108042
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54696
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    n is the number of years of the project (as per the examiner).

    In Neptune the cash flows resulting from the project occur for six years.

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