Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Mercury training June 2008
- This topic has 5 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 5 years ago by John Moffat.
- AuthorPosts
- May 11, 2019 at 7:23 am #515568
Sir they have used earnings growth rate instead of dividend growth rate. Is earnings growth rate being used as a substitute?
May 11, 2019 at 8:44 am #515586I assume that you are referring to part (b) of the question, in which case the calculations have used the dividend growth rate as calculated using Gordon’s growth approximation.
However, the question asks for advice as to the range of likely issue prices, and therefore the written parts of the answer are more important than the calculations anyway.
May 11, 2019 at 4:27 pm #515629it says
choice is to be made between,
historic earnings growth is 12%
then it gives an average revenue growth rate of 5.33%
finally the growth rate we have calculated using g=br which is 7.26%i understand why we choose the rate that we do.
I am having confusion in this model;Do(1+g)/ke-g
the growth rate used is earnings growth rate as i have mentioned above. Is this always the case?
0.25(1.0726)/0.096-0.0726
thanks
May 12, 2019 at 10:01 am #515655Sorry but I do not understand you.
The growth rate used is 7.26%, which is the dividend growth rate as given by the formula
g = rb.May 12, 2019 at 8:37 pm #515719Oh. Ok thanks. A bit of conceptual problem now resolved.
May 13, 2019 at 8:33 am #515748You are welcome 🙂
- AuthorPosts
- The topic ‘Mercury training June 2008’ is closed to new replies.