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mercury training (6/08)(a)

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › mercury training (6/08)(a)

  • This topic has 9 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by AvatarJohn Moffat.
Viewing 10 posts - 1 through 10 (of 10 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • October 15, 2016 at 5:57 pm #343365
    Avatarvinty
    Member
    • Topics: 47
    • Replies: 22
    • ☆☆

    MV of equity of Jupiter can be calculated as 50 million shares multiplied by market price of share of 580 cent, why this value is not used in degearing of equity beta of 1.5?

    October 16, 2016 at 7:06 am #343391
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54836
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Because the question tells you that the gearing is 12% debt (and therefore 88% equity).

    By all means use the total MV of equity, but then you would have to calculate the total value of the debt as well (using the gearing ratio of 12%) and you would end up with exactly the same answer.

    October 16, 2016 at 9:00 am #343404
    Avatarvinty
    Member
    • Topics: 47
    • Replies: 22
    • ☆☆

    Thanks sir

    October 16, 2016 at 2:11 pm #343435
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54836
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

    October 16, 2016 at 4:00 pm #343474
    Avatarvinty
    Member
    • Topics: 47
    • Replies: 22
    • ☆☆

    Sir would you please explain the advice given in part (b)

    October 17, 2016 at 8:03 am #343937
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54836
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You will have to say which bit of the advice you are not clear about.

    It is standard practice to consider both the net asset value and the dividend valuation model (depending on the information available in the question). The dividend valuation model relies on the estimate of future dividend growth, which is why the examiners answer has considered different estimates of future growth.

    November 15, 2016 at 12:59 pm #349067
    Avatarsyedshah000
    Member
    • Topics: 19
    • Replies: 30
    • ☆

    Dear John like you said above if we use Mv of equity i.e 50m shares multiply $5.80 .then we have to calculate Value of debt by gearing of 12%. I am wondering is it possible to calculate Value of debt amount by only % of gearing provided in the question.

    If its possible to find Vd amount. Can you please show me the working of how to do it. ?

    November 15, 2016 at 5:44 pm #349117
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54836
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I don’t really understand why you actually want to do it, but the value of the debt will be 12/88 of the value of the equity.

    November 16, 2016 at 10:46 am #349240
    Avatarsyedshah000
    Member
    • Topics: 19
    • Replies: 30
    • ☆

    Thanks John Just wannain to take an idea of how to do it. Well thanks a lot John really

    November 16, 2016 at 5:51 pm #349325
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54836
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are very welcome 🙂

    (and thanks a lot for the other comment you made – I think you will know which one 🙂 )

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