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MCQ Revision test

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › MCQ Revision test

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • June 1, 2015 at 1:03 pm #251321
    leebickle
    Member
    • Topics: 22
    • Replies: 6
    • ☆

    Hi Sir,

    Could you help me with the following question please:

    A company has just paid a dividend of $0.23 per share.

    Shareholders are expecting the dividend to remain at $0.23 per share next year, but to increase at an average rate of 3% per annum thereafter.

    Shareholders required rate of return is 12% and rate of corp tax is 25%

    What is the current market value per share

    The answer = $2.56

    after using the dividend growth valuation model I get 0.23 x 1.03 / (0.12 – 0.03) = $2.63.

    I thought that when working out the current market value we need to get to cum div so I added Do i.e. $2.63 + $0.23 = $2.86

    Can you please advise me as to where I am going wrong?

    Thanks for your time

    June 1, 2015 at 3:58 pm #251362
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54835
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The formula on the formula sheet is not strictly correct (but we have to live with it!).

    Instead of Do (1+g) on the top of the formula, it should strictly be written as D1 (where D1 is the dividend in 1 years time).

    Usually it is not a problem because the dividend in 1 year is usually the current dividend together with 1 years growth.

    However in this question the dividend in 1 years time is not 23 plus growth, it is actually 23c.

    So the formula give 23 / (0.12 – 0.03) = $2.56.

    (The examiner has done this quite a few times recently)

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