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- This topic has 3 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by John Moffat.
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- November 23, 2015 at 7:55 am #284681
a project is expected to earn $5000p.a(current price) in perpetuity. inlfating at 4% per year. the first receipt will be in one year time. cost of cap. is 12%. what is the present value of receipts.
i tried several times but couldnt get the correct solution. please help.
November 23, 2015 at 10:03 am #284692Because it is an inflating perpetuity you have to discount the real cash flow (the current price flow) at the real cost of capital (the effective rate).
(This is explained in our free Lecture Notes and lectures).Using the Fisher formula, the real cost of capital is 1.12/1.04 – 1 = 0.0769231 (or 7.69231%)
Discounting the perpetuity in the normal way gives 5,000 / 0.0769231 = $65,000
Alternatively you can use the dividend valuation formula on the formula sheet (it works for any inflating perpetuity, not just dividends).
So PV = (5,000 x 1.04) / (0.12 – 0.04) = 65,000November 25, 2015 at 11:52 am #285163thank you very much.
November 25, 2015 at 4:13 pm #285221You are welcome 🙂
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