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MCQ- NPV

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › MCQ- NPV

  • This topic has 3 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
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    Posts
  • November 23, 2015 at 7:55 am #284681
    haider239
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 0
    • ☆

    a project is expected to earn $5000p.a(current price) in perpetuity. inlfating at 4% per year. the first receipt will be in one year time. cost of cap. is 12%. what is the present value of receipts.

    i tried several times but couldnt get the correct solution. please help.

    November 23, 2015 at 10:03 am #284692
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54758
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Because it is an inflating perpetuity you have to discount the real cash flow (the current price flow) at the real cost of capital (the effective rate).
    (This is explained in our free Lecture Notes and lectures).

    Using the Fisher formula, the real cost of capital is 1.12/1.04 – 1 = 0.0769231 (or 7.69231%)

    Discounting the perpetuity in the normal way gives 5,000 / 0.0769231 = $65,000

    Alternatively you can use the dividend valuation formula on the formula sheet (it works for any inflating perpetuity, not just dividends).
    So PV = (5,000 x 1.04) / (0.12 – 0.04) = 65,000

    November 25, 2015 at 11:52 am #285163
    Azad
    Member
    • Topics: 10
    • Replies: 27
    • ☆

    thank you very much.

    November 25, 2015 at 4:13 pm #285221
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54758
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

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