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mcq f9

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › mcq f9

  • This topic has 3 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • June 2, 2015 at 6:55 pm #252103
    Nadu
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 4
    • ☆

    first of all thanks for forgiving sir 🙂

    sir following question i m facing difficulty need your guidance

    A PROJECT HAS REQUIRE AN INVESTMENT OF $25,000 & IS EXPECTED TO GENERATE A CASHFLOW OF $8,000 A YEAR FOR 5 YEARS (WITH THE FIRST RECEIPT IN ONE YEARS TIME)
    WHAT IS THE SENSITIVITY TO CHANGE OF CASH INFLOW EACH YEAR?

    RI co has in issue 6% redeemable bonds, quoted at 120% ex int.

    WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENT IS CONSISTED WITHABOVE INFORMATION?

    (IN THIS I KNOW HOW TO CALCULATE INTEREST YIELD BUT DONT KNOW HOW TO CALCULATE REDEMPTION YIELD 🙁 )

    the share price of Cp plc is $4 per share .they announce a 1 for 5 right issue at $3.10 per share

    WHAT % OF THE RIGHT OFFERED TO A SHAREHOLDER DOES THE SHAREHOLDER NEED TO TAKE UP SO AS TO HAVE NO NET CASHFLOW RESULTING FROM ISSUE?

    June 2, 2015 at 7:10 pm #252121
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54835
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Please do not type in capital letters 🙂

    Question 1:

    To get the sensitivity you need to divide the NPV of the project by the present values of the cash inflows of 8,000 a year, and express it as a percentage.
    (The free lecture on investment appraisal under uncertainty explains why)

    Question 2:

    You cannot be asked to calculate the redemption yield, and you do not need to here.
    The interest yield is 6/120 which is 5%. Because the bonds are to be redeemed at less that 120, the redemption yield must be less than 5%. Only one of the choices has the interest yield at 5% and the redemption yield at less than 5%.
    (The free lecture on this will help!)

    Question 3:

    You really should watch the free lectures – they go through the whole syllabus for F9 and the lecture on rights issues goes through an almost identical example to the one above!

    The ex-rights price is therefore ((5 x $4) + $3.10) / 6 = $3.85 per share.

    Suppose someone currently owns 10000 shares (any number will do – 10000 is easy!)

    They are currently worth 10,000 x $4 = $40,000

    After the rights issue, they must be worth in total $40,000 and therefore if there is to be no cash effect, their shares must in total be worth $40,000.

    Since the new MV is $3.85, it means they must now own 40,000/3.85 = 100390 shares – 390 more than before.

    They were entitled to 1/5 x 10,000 = 2,000 shares.

    So they must have taken up 390/2,000 = 19.5% of their rights

    June 2, 2015 at 8:07 pm #252150
    mehreen245
    Member
    • Topics: 15
    • Replies: 21
    • ☆

    sir i also have issue solving the first one mentioned here.. can you please give me your figures (without explaining) so i can just match with mine.. where am i going wrong
    thank you so much

    June 3, 2015 at 6:40 am #252256
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54835
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The cost of capital in the first question was given as 10%

    The present value of $8,000 a year for 5 years is 8,000 x 3.791 = 30,328

    The NPV is 30,328 – 25,000 = 5,328

    The sensitivity = 5,328 / 30,328 = 17.57%

    It is negative because it is only a problem if the inflows decrease – not if they increase.

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