first of all thanks for forgiving sir :)
sir following question i m facing difficulty need your guidance
A PROJECT HAS REQUIRE AN INVESTMENT OF $25,000 & IS EXPECTED TO GENERATE A CASHFLOW OF $8,000 A YEAR FOR 5 YEARS (WITH THE FIRST RECEIPT IN ONE YEARS TIME)
WHAT IS THE SENSITIVITY TO CHANGE OF CASH INFLOW EACH YEAR?
RI co has in issue 6% redeemable bonds, quoted at 120% ex int.
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENT IS CONSISTED WITHABOVE INFORMATION?
(IN THIS I KNOW HOW TO CALCULATE INTEREST YIELD BUT DONT KNOW HOW TO CALCULATE REDEMPTION YIELD :( )
the share price of Cp plc is $4 per share .they announce a 1 for 5 right issue at $3.10 per share
WHAT % OF THE RIGHT OFFERED TO A SHAREHOLDER DOES THE SHAREHOLDER NEED TO TAKE UP SO AS TO HAVE NO NET CASHFLOW RESULTING FROM ISSUE?
Ask the Tutor ACCA FM
mcq f9
Please do not type in capital letters :-)
Question 1:
To get the sensitivity you need to divide the NPV of the project by the present values of the cash inflows of 8,000 a year, and express it as a percentage.
(The free lecture on investment appraisal under uncertainty explains why)
Question 2:
You cannot be asked to calculate the redemption yield, and you do not need to here.
The interest yield is 6/120 which is 5%. Because the bonds are to be redeemed at less that 120, the redemption yield must be less than 5%. Only one of the choices has the interest yield at 5% and the redemption yield at less than 5%.
(The free lecture on this will help!)
Question 3:
You really should watch the free lectures – they go through the whole syllabus for F9 and the lecture on rights issues goes through an almost identical example to the one above!
The ex-rights price is therefore ((5 x $4) + $3.10) / 6 = $3.85 per share.
Suppose someone currently owns 10000 shares (any number will do – 10000 is easy!)
They are currently worth 10,000 x $4 = $40,000
After the rights issue, they must be worth in total $40,000 and therefore if there is to be no cash effect, their shares must in total be worth $40,000.
Since the new MV is $3.85, it means they must now own 40,000/3.85 = 100390 shares – 390 more than before.
They were entitled to 1/5 x 10,000 = 2,000 shares.
So they must have taken up 390/2,000 = 19.5% of their rights
sir i also have issue solving the first one mentioned here.. can you please give me your figures (without explaining) so i can just match with mine.. where am i going wrong
thank you so much
The cost of capital in the first question was given as 10%
The present value of $8,000 a year for 5 years is 8,000 x 3.791 = 30,328
The NPV is 30,328 - 25,000 = 5,328
The sensitivity = 5,328 / 30,328 = 17.57%
It is negative because it is only a problem if the inflows decrease - not if they increase.
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